T/F: The semicircular canals of the inner ear are concerned primarily with the sense of the equilibrium.
Answer: True
T/F: The semicircular canals of the inner ear are concerned primarily with the sense of the equilibrium.
Answer: True
Answer: True
T/F: A tendon called the suspensory ligament attaches the lens to the ciliary body.
T/F: A tendon called the suspensory ligament attaches the lens to the ciliary body.
Answer: False
T/F: The gastrocnemius is a muscle that brings about plantar flexion from its location on the anterior surface of the leg.
T/F: The gastrocnemius is a muscle that brings about plantar flexion from its location on the anterior surface of the leg.
Answer: False
T/F: The lengthening of a long bone comes to an end when the epiphyseal plate turns to cartilage.
T/F: The lengthening of a long bone comes to an end when the epiphyseal plate turns to cartilage.
Answer: False
T/F: Where the frontal bone of the skull meets two parietal bones, the joint is called a suture.
T/F: Where the frontal bone of the skull meets two parietal bones, the joint is called a suture.
Answer: True
T/F: The major organ of the integumentary system is the skin.
T/F: The major organ of the integumentary system is the skin.
Answer: True
T/F: The nasal cavity is divided into left and right chambers by a vertical partition called the ethmoid bone.
T/F: The nasal cavity is divided into left and right chambers by a vertical partition called the ethmoid bone.
Answer: False
T/F: The expansion of the lungs increases the volume of the lungs and raises the air pressure within the lungs.
T/F: The expansion of the lungs increases the volume of the lungs and raises the air pressure within the lungs.
Answer: False
T/F: A pulmonary embolism occurs when there is a blockage of a blood vessel in the lung.
T/F: A pulmonary embolism occurs when there is a blockage of a blood vessel in the lung.
Answer: False
T/F: The major function of the gluteus maximus is to extend the leg at the hip.
T/F: The major function of the gluteus maximus is to extend the leg at the hip.
Answer: True
T/F: Nerve receptors are found in the epidermis.
T/F: Nerve receptors are found in the epidermis.
Answer: False
T/F: Fluid filled sacs called bursae are found in the patella of the knee, which are found between the knee and skin.
T/F: Fluid filled sacs called bursae are found in the patella of the knee, which are found between the knee and skin.
Answer: True
T/F: The vastus lateralis muscle is a part of the quadriceps femoris.
T/F: The vastus lateralis muscle is a part of the quadriceps femoris.
Answer: True
T/F: Skin graft is the process of placing tissue on a recipient site taken from the donor site.
T/F: Skin graft is the process of placing tissue on a recipient site taken from the donor site.
Answer: True
T/F: Meniere's Disease is an acute inner ear disease in which there is an over accumulation of the endolymph.
T/F: Meniere's Disease is an acute inner ear disease in which there is an over accumulation of the endolymph.
Answer: False
T/F: An ABG test can identify bacteria in the specimen taken from the blood.
T/F: An ABG test can identify bacteria in the specimen taken from the blood.
Answer: False
T/F: The three bones that form the pelvic bone are he ileum, ischium, and the pubis.
T/F: The three bones that form the pelvic bone are he ileum, ischium, and the pubis.
Answer: False
T/F: At it's proximal end, the nail is partially covered by the cuticle.
T/F: At it's proximal end, the nail is partially covered by the cuticle.
Answer: True
T/F: Nervous tissue provides support for the body, responds to stimuli, and receives and relays signals.
T/F: Nervous tissue provides support for the body, responds to stimuli, and receives and relays signals.
Answer: False
T/F: One of the functions of the masseter muscle is to bite and chew food.
T/F: One of the functions of the masseter muscle is to bite and chew food.
Answer: True
T/F: Collapse of the lung is called a thoracentesis.
T/F: Collapse of the lung is called a thoracentesis.
Answer: False
T/F: The choroid contains three structures: Iris, Ciliary Body, and Suspensory Ligaments.
T/F: The choroid contains three structures: Iris, Ciliary Body, and Suspensory Ligaments.
Answer: True
T/F: The cranium protects the brain, the outer ear, and parts of the eye.
T/F: The cranium protects the brain, the outer ear, and parts of the eye.
Answer: False
T/F: the central opening on the vertebrae for passage of the spinal cord is the fontanel.
T/F: the central opening on the vertebrae for passage of the spinal cord is the fontanel.
Answer: False
T/F: The name given to the glands in the ear canal is Ceruminous.
T/F: The name given to the glands in the ear canal is Ceruminous.
Answer: True
T/F: The stratum corneum is replaced by a non living substance that forms a waterproof covering. It is called sebum.
T/F: The stratum corneum is replaced by a non living substance that forms a waterproof covering. It is called sebum.
Answer: False
T/F: the synovial fluid lubricates the joint where two flat bones articulate.
T/F: the synovial fluid lubricates the joint where two flat bones articulate.
Answer: False
T/F: the terminal ends of the bronchi are the bronchioles.
T/F: the terminal ends of the bronchi are the bronchioles.
Answer: True
T/F: the diaphragm is a dome shaped muscle that separates the thoracic and pelvic cavities.
T/F: the diaphragm is a dome shaped muscle that separates the thoracic and pelvic cavities.
Answer: False
T/F: In the abdominopelvic cavity, the epigastric region lies immediately superior to the hypogastric region.
T/F: In the abdominopelvic cavity, the epigastric region lies immediately superior to the hypogastric region.
Answer: False
T/F: The function of the eyes and ears is to receive stimuli and transmit these impulses to the brain for interpretation.
T/F: The function of the eyes and ears is to receive stimuli and transmit these impulses to the brain for interpretation.
Answer: True
T/F: The sternocleidomastoid extends from the sternum upward, across either side of the neck to the mastoid process.
T/F: The sternocleidomastoid extends from the sternum upward, across either side of the neck to the mastoid process.
Answer: True
T/F: The larynx is closed off when we swallow so that foods and liquids are routed posteriorly into the esophagus and are kept out of the trachea anteriorly.
T/F: The larynx is closed off when we swallow so that foods and liquids are routed posteriorly into the esophagus and are kept out of the trachea anteriorly.
Answer: True
T/F: The left lung has three lobes and the right lung is divided into two lobes.
T/F: The left lung has three lobes and the right lung is divided into two lobes.
Answer: False
T/F: The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and the environment is called external respiration.
T/F: The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and the environment is called external respiration.
Answer: True
T/F: the largest and longest bone of the upper arm is the radius.
T/F: the largest and longest bone of the upper arm is the radius.
Answer: False
T/F: Connective tissue structures that hold bones firmly together at the joints are called ligaments.
T/F: Connective tissue structures that hold bones firmly together at the joints are called ligaments.
Answer: True
T/F: The cervical vertebrae are the largest vertebrae in the spinal column, since they maintain the most weight.
T/F: The cervical vertebrae are the largest vertebrae in the spinal column, since they maintain the most weight.
Answer: False
T/F: the most dangerous type of skin cancer is malignant melanoma.
T/F: the most dangerous type of skin cancer is malignant melanoma.
Answer: True
T/F: The stratum corneum forms the outermost layer of the epidermis.
T/F: The stratum corneum forms the outermost layer of the epidermis.
Answer: True
T/F: Sweat glands are most numerous in the soles of the feet and the elbows.
T/F: Sweat glands are most numerous in the soles of the feet and the elbows.
Answer: False
T/F: Compact bones is the type of solid bone found at the external portion of lone bones.
T/F: Compact bones is the type of solid bone found at the external portion of lone bones.
Answer: True
Bile is produced by the _____ but stored in the ______.
Bile is produced by the _____ but stored in the ______.
a. liver, pancreas
b. gallbladder, liver
c. liver, gallbladder
d. small intestine, pancreas
e. gallbladder, pancreas
Answer: C
The opening of the large intestine is called the:
The opening of the large intestine is called the:
a. cecum
b. sigmoid colon
c. rectum
d. anus
e. ileum
Answer: D
Which one of the following is NOT a modification (which is designed to increase surface area for absorption) within the small intestine:
Which one of the following is NOT a modification (which is designed to increase surface area for absorption) within the small intestine:
a. microvilli
b. villi
c. Peyer's patches
d. circular folds
e. plicae circulares
Answer: C
The small intestine extends from the:
The small intestine extends from the:
a. cardioesophageal sphincter to the pyloric sphincter
b. pyloric sphincter to the ileocecal valve
c. ileocecal valve to the appendix
d. appendix to the sigmoid colon
e. cardioesophageal sphincter to ileocecal valve
Answer: B
Which one of the following is continuous with the esophagus
Which one of the following is continuous with the esophagus
a. nasopharynx
b. oropharynx
c. linguopharynx
d. laryngopharynx
e. esophagopharynx
Answer: D
Which one of the following is NOT an organ of the alimentary canal
Which one of the following is NOT an organ of the alimentary canal
a. mouth
b. teeth
c. pharynx
d. esophagus
e. stomach
Answer: B
Exchange of both oxygen and carbon dioxide through the respiratory membrane occurs by:
Exchange of both oxygen and carbon dioxide through the respiratory membrane occurs by:
a. osmosis
b. simple diffusion
c. facilitated diffusion
d. active transport
e. passive transport
Answer: B
The opening between the vocal chords is called the:
The opening between the vocal chords is called the:
a. epiglottis
b. glottis
c. larynx
d. thyroid cartilage
e. esophagus
Answer: B
Tonsils that lie at the base of the tongue are called
Tonsils that lie at the base of the tongue are called
a. adenoids
b. pharyngeal tonsils
c. palatine tonsils
d. lingual tonsils
e. pharyngotympanic tonsils
Answer: D
The pharyngotympanic tubes, which drain the middle ear, open into the
The pharyngotympanic tubes, which drain the middle ear, open into the
a. nasopharynx
b. oropharynx
c. palate pharynx
d. laryngopharynx
e. trachea pharynx
Answer: A
Air from the nasal cavity enters the superior portion of the pharynx called the:
Air from the nasal cavity enters the superior portion of the pharynx called the:
a. nasopharynx
b. oropharynx
c. palate pharynx
d. laryngopharynx
e. trachea pharynx
Answer: A
Which one of the following is NOT a function of the paranasal sinuses:
Which one of the following is NOT a function of the paranasal sinuses:
a. they lighten the skull
b. they act as resonance chambers for speech
c. they produce mucus
d. they are olfactory receptors for smell
e. they help to moisten air
Answer: D
Which one of the following bones does NOT contain paranasal sinuses:
Which one of the following bones does NOT contain paranasal sinuses:
a. frontal
b. sphenoid
c. mandible
d. ethmoid
e. maxilla
Answer: C
The nasal cavity is separated from the oral cavity by:
The nasal cavity is separated from the oral cavity by:
a. the hard palate
b. the nasal conchae
c. the soft palate
d. both the hard and soft palate
e. both the nasal conchae and hard palate
Answer: D
Which one of the following terms does not apply to the nose
Which one of the following terms does not apply to the nose
a. external nares
b. nasopharynx
c. nostrils
d. nasal cavity
e. nasal septum
Answer: B
The conducting passageways of the respiratory system include all of the following structures EXCEPT:
The conducting passageways of the respiratory system include all of the following structures EXCEPT:
a. nose
b. pharynx
c. larynx
d. trachea
e. alveoli
Answer: E
The relatively common autoimmune disease in which the thyroid gland produces excessive amounts of thyroxine is called:
The relatively common autoimmune disease in which the thyroid gland produces excessive amounts of thyroxine is called:
a. multiple sclerosis
b. Graves' disease
c. myasthenia gravis
d. glomerulonephritis
e. systemic lupus erythematosus
Answer: B
The process by which antibodies bind to specific sites on bacterial exotoxins (toxic chemicals secreted by bacteria) to block their harmful effects is called:
The process by which antibodies bind to specific sites on bacterial exotoxins (toxic chemicals secreted by bacteria) to block their harmful effects is called:
a. agglutination
b. chemotaxis
c. complement fixation
d. neutralization
e. precipitation
Answer: D
IgA:
IgA:
a. is mainly found in mucus and secretions such as tears and saliva
b. is passed from mother to fetus during pregnancy
c. is the most abundant antibody in blood plasma
d. can fix complement
e. is involved in allergies
Answer: A
Vaccines are NOT for
Vaccines are NOT for
a. pneumonia
b. tetanus
c. measles
d. snake bites
e. polio
Answer: D
B cells develop immunocompetence in the:
B cells develop immunocompetence in the:
a. thymus gland
b. bone marrow
c. spleen
d. thyroid gland
e. lymph nodes
Answer: B
The specific foreign substances that an individual's immune system has the ability to recognize and resist is determined by
The specific foreign substances that an individual's immune system has the ability to recognize and resist is determined by
a. individual exposure to the specific foreign substance
b. individual genetic makeup
c. the total number of lymphocytes present at a given time
d. the total number of macrophages at a given time
e. the total number of self-antigens at a given time
Answer: B
Fever has the effect of doing all of the following EXCEPT:
Fever has the effect of doing all of the following EXCEPT:
a. denaturing proteins
b. stimulation the liver and spleen to gather up iron and zinc
c. increasing metabolic rate of tissue cells
d. stimulation complement fixation
e. speeding up repair processes
Answer: D
Which one of the following is NOT one of the nonspecific body defenses:
Which one of the following is NOT one of the nonspecific body defenses:
a. intact skin
b. antibody production
c. the inflammatory response
d. fever
e. natural killer cells
Answer: B
Which one of the following is NOT a type of lymphoid organ:
Which one of the following is NOT a type of lymphoid organ:
a. spleen
b. thymus gland
c. tonsils
d. appendix
e. Peyer's patches
Answer: D
Lymph from the left arm would return to the heart through the:
Lymph from the left arm would return to the heart through the:
a. inferior vena cava
b. thoracic duct
c. right lymphatic duct
d. left subclavian artery
e. aorta
Answer: B
Lymph flows:
Lymph flows:
a. in a circular pattern within the tissues
b. away from the heart only
c. toward the heart only
d. both toward and away from the heart
e. into the capillaries
Answer: C
Which of the following is true concerning the lub-dub sounds of the heart:
Which of the following is true concerning the lub-dub sounds of the heart:
a. first sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of AV valves, second is shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of semilunar valves
b. the first sound is shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of the tricuspid valve, the second sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of the mitral valve.
Answer: A
A person with a heart rate of 75 bpm and a stroke volume of 60 mL per beat has a cardiac output of:
A person with a heart rate of 75 bpm and a stroke volume of 60 mL per beat has a cardiac output of:
a. 4500 mL/minute
b. 1.25 mL/minute
c. 0.8 mL/minute
d. 6000 mL/minute
e. 120 mL/minute
Answer: A
The mitral valve is normally closed:
The mitral valve is normally closed:
a. when the ventricle is in diastole
b. when the ventricle is in systole
c. when the atrium is contracting
d. by the movement of blood from the atrium to the ventricle
e. when the ventricle is contracting
Answer: B
A heart rate of over 100 beats per minute is called:
A heart rate of over 100 beats per minute is called:
a. bradycardia
b. tachycardia
c. ischemia
d. diastole
e. heart block
Answer: B
Which one of the following are direct branches of the left coronary artery:
Which one of the following are direct branches of the left coronary artery:
a. circumflex and marginal arteries
b. anterior and posterior interventricular arteries
c. anterior interventricular and marginal arteries
d. anterior interventricular and circumflex arteries
e. posterior interventricular and marginal arteries
Answer: D
The aortic semilunar valve is composed of
The aortic semilunar valve is composed of
a. 2 cusps and opens when left ventricle contracts
b. 3 cusps and opens when left ventricle contracts
c. 2 cusps and opens when right atrium contracts
d. 3 cusps and opens when right atrium contracts
e. two cusps and closes when blood is filling the pulmonary circuit
Answer: B
Which area of the heart receives blood from the systemic veins
Which area of the heart receives blood from the systemic veins
a. right ventricle
b. left ventricle
c. aorta
d. right atrium
e. left atrium
Answer: D
The layer of the heart wall synonymous with the visceral layer of the serous pericardium is:
The layer of the heart wall synonymous with the visceral layer of the serous pericardium is:
a. myocardium
b. endocardium
c. epicardium
d. parietal layer of the serous pericardium
e. either endocardium or epicardium
Answer: C
Which one of the following represents the proper sequence of hemostasis
Which one of the following represents the proper sequence of hemostasis
a. platelet plug formation, coagulation, vascular spasm
b. vascular spasm, coagulation, platelet plug formation
c. coagulation, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation
d. vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation
e. coagulation, platelet plug formation, vascular spasm
Answer: D
The series of reactions that stop blood flow following a cut is called:
The series of reactions that stop blood flow following a cut is called:
a. homeostasis
b. coagulation
c. hemostasis
d. erythropoiesis
e. agglutination
Answer: C
Blood cell formation in adults occurs in all of the following EXCEPT the:
Blood cell formation in adults occurs in all of the following EXCEPT the:
a. flat bones of the skull
b. flat bones of the pelvis
c. shaft of the femur
d. proximal epiphyses of the humerus and femur
e. the epiphyseal plates
Answer: C
Which type of leukocyte contains heparin, an anticoagulant:
Which type of leukocyte contains heparin, an anticoagulant:
a. neutrophil
b. monocyte
c. lymphocyte
d. basophil
e. eosinophil
Answer: D
The type of leukocytes that would increase rapidly during allergy attacks and infections of parasitic worms are:
The type of leukocytes that would increase rapidly during allergy attacks and infections of parasitic worms are:
a. eosinophils
b. basophils
c. neutrophils
d. lymphocytes
e. monocytes
Answer: A
Which one of the following does NOT describe blood plasma:
Which one of the following does NOT describe blood plasma:
a. it contains plasma proteins
b. it contains metal ions (salts)
c. its pH is 7.35 to 7.45
d. it contains hormones
e. it is the color of red wine
Answer: E
In a centrifuged blood sample, the buffy coat between the formed elements and the plasma contains:
In a centrifuged blood sample, the buffy coat between the formed elements and the plasma contains:
a. leukocytes and erythrocytes
b. platelets and erythrocytes
c. leukocytes and platelets
d. erythrocytes only
e. leukocytes only
Answer: C
Which one of the following is NOT a criteria generally used in naming muscles:
Which one of the following is NOT a criteria generally used in naming muscles:
a. relative size of the muscle
b. number of origins of the muscle
c. shape of the muscle
d. method of attachment of the muscle to bone
e. action of the muscle
Answer: D
Which one of the following muscle actions would NOT be classified as an ISOTONIC contraction
Which one of the following muscle actions would NOT be classified as an ISOTONIC contraction
a. pushing against a stationary wall
b. lifting a glass of water to your mouth
c. writing a letter
d. tying your shoe
e. throwing a ball
Answer: A
The condition of skeletal muscle fatigue can be best explained by:
The condition of skeletal muscle fatigue can be best explained by:
a. the all-or-none law
b. the inability to generate sufficient quantities of ATP due to feedback regulation of synthesis
c. insufficient intracellular quantities of ATP due to excessive consumption
d. a total lack of ATP
e. inadequate numbers of mitochondria
Answer: C
Neurotransmitters are released upon stimulation from a nerve impulse by the:
Neurotransmitters are released upon stimulation from a nerve impulse by the:
a. myofibrils
b. motor unit
c. thick filaments
d. axon terminals of the motor neuron
e. sarcolemma of the muscle cell
Answer: D
The gap between the axon terminal of a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell is called the:
The gap between the axon terminal of a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell is called the:
a. motor unit
b. sarcomere
c. neuromuscular junction
d. synaptic cleft
e. cross bridge
Answer: D
Which one of the following functions do calcium ions perform during skeletal muscle contraction:
Which one of the following functions do calcium ions perform during skeletal muscle contraction:
a. increase the action potential transmitted along the sarcolemma
b. release the inhibition on Z discs
c. expose myosin binding sites on the actin
d. cause ATP binding to actin
e. bind to regulatory proteins on the myosin filaments, changing both their shape and their position on the thick filaments
Answer: C
The axon terminals of a nerve cell and the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle join at the:
The axon terminals of a nerve cell and the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle join at the:
a. motor unit
b. neuromuscular junction
c. synaptic cleft
d. action potential
e. myofibril
Answer: B
A sarcomere is:
A sarcomere is:
a. the nonfunctional unit of skeletal muscle
b. the contractile unit between two Z discs
c. the area between two intercalated discs
d. the wavy lines on the cell, as seen in a microscope
e. a compartment in a myofilament
Answer: B
What type of membrane wraps a fascicle:
What type of membrane wraps a fascicle:
a. endomysium
b. epimysium
c. aponeuroses
d. perimysium
e. tendons
Answer: D
The plasma membrane of a muscle cell is called the:
The plasma membrane of a muscle cell is called the:
a. sarcolemma
b. sarcomere
c. myofilament
d. sarcoplasm
e. sarcoplasmic reticulum
Answer: A
The type of muscle tissue pictured in Figure 6.3 is:
The type of muscle tissue pictured in Figure 6.3 is:
a. skeletal muscle
b. voluntary
c. striated
d. found only in the heart
e. smooth muscle
Answer: E
A fracture that is common in osteoporotic bones is a(n):
A fracture that is common in osteoporotic bones is a(n):
a. impacted fracture
b. compression fracture
c. spiral fracture
d. depressed fracture
e. simple fracture
Answer: B
What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo:
What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo:
a. elastic connective tissue
b. dense fibrous connective tissue
c. fibrocartilage
d. hyaline cartilage
e. loose fibrous connective tissue
Answer: D
The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective tissue fibers called
The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective tissue fibers called
a. Volkmann's canals
b. a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage
c. Sharpey's fibers
d. endochondral bone
e. articular bone
Answer: C
Which of the following systems is matched most accurately to the life function it proves:
Which of the following systems is matched most accurately to the life function it proves:
a. integumentary system - movement
b. nervous system - excretion
c. muscular system - maintaining boundaries
d. nervous system - responsiveness
e. respiratory system - digestion
Answer: D
The muscular system consists of the:
The muscular system consists of the:
a. skeletal muscles
b. muscles of the heart
c. muscles in the walls of hollow organs
d. skeletal muscles and the muscles of the heart
e. muscles of the heart and those in the walls of the hollow organs
Answer: A
Which of the following is the correct sequence, going from simplest to most complex, in the levels of structural organization of the human body:
Which of the following is the correct sequence, going from simplest to most complex, in the levels of structural organization of the human body:
a. chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, organ system, organismal
b. chemical, tissue, cellular, organ system, organ, organismal
c. cellular, chemical, tissue, organ, organ system, organismal
d. cellular, tissue, chemical, organ, organ system, organismal
e. cellular, chemical, tissue, organ system, organismal, organ
Answer: A
Why is the pituitary gland called the "master gland"?
Why is the pituitary gland called the "master gland"?
a) It releases the most important hormones
b) It releases hormones that control other glands
c) It releases growth hormone
d) It controls our blood sugar
Answer: B
Neutrophils differ from Phagocytes because:
Neutrophils differ from Phagocytes because:
a) Phagocytes eat only 1 pathogen and then die
b) Neutrophils eat only 1 pathogen and then die
c) Phagocytes are in the acquired immune system, neutrophils are in the innate response
d) B and C
Answer: B
Activated B cells can become this type of cell:
Activated B cells can become this type of cell:
a) Killer B cells that attack infected cells
b) Helper B cells that recruit nearby immune cells
c) B cells that release antibodies into the bloodstream
d) All of the above
Answer: C
How do lymph nodes generate pressure?
How do lymph nodes generate pressure?
a) Smooth muscles lining lymph vessels
b) Backflow valves and more fluid going into nodes than going out of nodes
c) A centralized lymph pump, like the heart
d) All of the above
Answer: B
This type of neuron doesn't need a long axon
This type of neuron doesn't need a long axon
a) Sensory neuron
b) Motor neuron
c) Interneuron
d) Minor neurons
Answer: C
Diabetes is defined as
Diabetes is defined as
a) The inability to produce insulin
b) The overproduction of insulin in response to sugar
c) The desensitization of the body to insulin
d) A and C
Answer: D
Select the correct pairing of hormone and the cause of its release
Select the correct pairing of hormone and the cause of its release
a) TSH: High body temperature
b) Corticoids: Short term stress
c) Corticoids: Long term stress
d) Insulin: Low blood sugar
Answer: C
Occipital Lobe
Occipital Lobe
a) Damage to this area does not result in blindness.
b) Associating the visual stimuli of words with their meaning
c) Control the movement of the eyes
d) Both B and C
Answer: B
Somatosensory cortex
Somatosensory cortex
a) Controls conscious body movements
b) The areas that represent the hands and face are the 2 largest portions of this region
c) All sensory information is interpreted in this region
d) The total area that represents the back and legs is more than the total area for the face and hands
Answer: B
Motor cortex
Motor cortex
a) Controls both voluntary and involuntary movements
b) Electrical stimulation to specific regions causes specific movements
c) Controls the movement of smooth muscle
d) All of the above
Answer: B
Wernicke's Area
Wernicke's Area
a) Producing speech
b) Comprehension of speech
c) Association of words with meaning
d) B and C
Answer: D
Temporal Lobe
Temporal Lobe
a) Processing odor and auditory information
b) Processing auditory and visual information
c) Processing visual and odor information
d) Processing only auditory information
Answer: A
The valve located between a ventricle and an artery is called
The valve located between a ventricle and an artery is called
a) AV valve
b) Semi-solar valve
c) Semi-lunar valve
d) SA valve
Answer: C
This section of the nephron is where the majority of what is filtered out gets reabsorbed.
This section of the nephron is where the majority of what is filtered out gets reabsorbed.
a) Bowman's capsule
b) Proximal tubule
c) Loop of Henle
d) Distal tubule
Answer: B
If the purkinje fibers are damaged, what function will be affected?
If the purkinje fibers are damaged, what function will be affected?
a) The atria won't contract
b) The ventricles won't contract
c) The brain can't receive information from the heart
d) A and B
Answer: B
Sickle cell anemia results in dysfunctional erythrocytes. What symptoms would you expect in a sickle cell patient?
Sickle cell anemia results in dysfunctional erythrocytes. What symptoms would you expect in a sickle cell patient?
a) Diminished immune function
b) Poor circulation of sugars
c) Poor circulation of oxygen
d) Diminished blood clotting
Answer: C
How do arteries withstand the pressure generated by the heart?
How do arteries withstand the pressure generated by the heart?
a) They are made with a more durable material than veins
b) They are coated in a layer of strong smooth muscle
c) They have very wide lumens that allow for greater blood flow
d) Arteries aren't under considerable pressure
Answer: B
A hole in the septum WON'T result in
A hole in the septum WON'T result in
a) Decreased ventricle contraction strength
b) Mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
c) Decreased bloodflow to the heart tissue
d) Lower average levels of oxygen in the blood
Answer: C
Why don't our digestive organs digest themselves?
Why don't our digestive organs digest themselves?
a) Enzymes are released as inactive, and are activated later
b) Organs are lined with a mucous membrane
c) Digestive enzymes only target food particles
d) A and B
Answer: D
During inhalation, the intercostal muscles are _________ while the diaphragm is __________
During inhalation, the intercostal muscles are _________ while the diaphragm is __________
a) Contracting, contracting
b) Relaxing, relaxing
c) Contracting, relaxing
d) Relaxing, contracting
Answer: A
The function of the pleura is to
The function of the pleura is to
a) Prevent the lungs from deflating
b) Connect the lungs to the ribcage
c) Increase the surface area for gas exchange
d) A and B
Answer: D
The digestion that occurs in the small intestine is
The digestion that occurs in the small intestine is
a) Mechanical
b) Chemical
c) Both chemical and mechanical
d) Neither, it is used for storage during digestion
Answer: B
Why would a desert animal have a longer loop of henle?
Why would a desert animal have a longer loop of henle?
a) Better electrolyte management
b) Better water reabsorption
c) Better filtration of nitrogenous wastes
d) Easier to jump rope with
Answer: B
The primary function of the aorta is _______.
The primary function of the aorta is _______.
a) Supply oxygenated blood to the body
b) Bring deoxygenated blood to the heart
c) Bring oxygenated blood to the brain
d) A and C
Answer: D
The primary function of the bladder is _______.
The primary function of the bladder is _______.
a) Water reabsorption
b) Formation of urea
c) Storage of urine
d) A and C
Answer: C
Which artery carries deoxygenated blood?
Which artery carries deoxygenated blood?
a) Coronary Artery
b) Pulmonary Artery
c) Aorta
d) Femoral Artery
Answer: B
The tube that connects the bladder and the kidney is the ___.
The tube that connects the bladder and the kidney is the ___.
a) Urethra
b) Ureter
c) Renal vessel
d) B and C
Answer: B
If you are unable to raise your shoulders in a shrug motion, this muscle is likely injured
If you are unable to raise your shoulders in a shrug motion, this muscle is likely injured
a) Deltoid
b) Triceps
c) Trapezius
d) Latissimus dorsi
Answer: C
If you are unable to bring your ulna to your humerus, this muscle is likely injured
If you are unable to bring your ulna to your humerus, this muscle is likely injured
a) Triceps
b) Biceps
c) Deltoid
d) Latissimus dorsi
Answer: B
The largest muscle of the back is called the
The largest muscle of the back is called the
a) Abdominals
b) Latissimus dorsi
c) Quadriceps
d) Pectoralis
Answer: B
The type of joint that allows for the most range of motion is the
The type of joint that allows for the most range of motion is the
a) Hinge
b) Saddle
c) Ellipsoid
d) Ball and socket
Answer: D
Tendons connect bones to _____________; Ligaments connect bones to _____________.
Tendons connect bones to _____________; Ligaments connect bones to _____________.
a) Muscle; Bone
b) Bone; Muscle
c) Bone; Bone
d) Muscle; Muscle
Answer: A
The thumb joint is a ___________ joint.
The thumb joint is a ___________ joint.
a) Plane
b) Ball and socket
c) Ellipsoid
d) Saddle
Answer: D
Both giraffes and humans have this many cervical vertebrae
Both giraffes and humans have this many cervical vertebrae
a) 7
b) 12
c) 5
d) 8
Answer: A
Osteoporosis occurs when
Osteoporosis occurs when
a) The body is unable to create new bone
b) The body breaks bone down faster than it builds new bone
c) Someone has a diet lacking in calcium
d) Small pores are formed in the compact bone
Answer: B
Which of the following is NOT a function of muscles:
Which of the following is NOT a function of muscles:
a) Locomotion/Movement
b) Filter wastes
c) Aid in digestion
d) Circulate blood
Answer: B
This section of the spine has the most vertebrae
This section of the spine has the most vertebrae
a) Cervical spine
b) Thoracic spine
c) Lumbar spine
d) Sacrum
Answer: B
These ribs share a common piece of cartilage that connects them to the sternum.
These ribs share a common piece of cartilage that connects them to the sternum.
a) True ribs
b) False ribs
c) Floating ribs
d) Babyback ribs
Answer: B
The skin is mostly made of
The skin is mostly made of
a) Epithelial tissue
b) Connective tissue
c) Muscle tissue
d) Nervous tissue
Answer: A
Blood is an example of a(n)
Blood is an example of a(n)
a) Epithelial tissue
b) Connective tissue
c) Muscle tissue
d) Nervous tissue
Answer: B
All macromolecules are built by a process called ____________ which ___________
All macromolecules are built by a process called ____________ which ___________
a) Hydrolysis; releases water
b) Hydrolysis; uses water
c) Dehydration synthesis; releases water
d) Dehydration synthesis; uses water
Answer: C
The _____ is/are proximal to your _____.
The _____ is/are proximal to your _____.
a) Ossicles; Skull
b) Tibia ; Patella
c) Metacarpals ; Carpals
d) Tarsals ; Metatarsals
Answer: D
Which of the following are true statements?
Which of the following are true statements?
a) All proteins are organic.
b) DNA contains carbon atoms.
c) Saturated fats are solid at room temperature.
d) all of the above
Answer: D
The spine is _____________ to the sternum.
The spine is _____________ to the sternum.
a) Dorsal
b) Superior
c) Ventral
d) Lateral
Answer: A
The humerus is _____________ to the radius.
The humerus is _____________ to the radius.
a) Ventral
b) Proximal
c) Deep
d) Lateral
Answer: B
The ribs protect the _____________ cavity.
The ribs protect the _____________ cavity.
a) Cranial
b) Thoracic
c) Abdominal
d) Pelvic
Answer: B
Which bones are divided by a frontal plane?
Which bones are divided by a frontal plane?
a) Sternum and ribs
b) Skull and ossicles
c) Clavicle and scapula
d) Tibia and fibula
Answer: C
Name the six types of connective tissue ?
Name the six types of connective tissue ?
- Loose connective tissue,
- fibrous connective tissue,
- bone tissue,
- blood tissue,
- adipose tissue,
- cartilage tissue.
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